If $xy > 0$, then $x$ and $y$ are [insert fancy smart term for same sign]
Does "sign parity" work here?
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$\begingroup$A quick search in Google Books gives the following quote:
[..] Hence, if $\Delta_{r-1}$ and $\Delta_r$ are of opposite signs, $\Delta_{r+1}$ and $\Delta_{r+2}$ are of the same sign as $\Delta_r$ [..]
You can't be smarter than H. S. M. Coxeter!
$\endgroup$ 3 $\begingroup$If $x$ and $y$ are real numbers, then the followings are equivalent.
- $xy>0$.
- $x$ and $y$ are both nonzero, and cannot have differing signs.
- The closed line segment connecting $x$ and $y$ does not contain $0$.
- One can go from $x$ to $y$ without ever touching $0$.
- The intervals $[x,y]$ and $[-x,-y]$ have no common point.
I agree with user2468. Usually this is stated $x$ and $y$ have the same sign. sgn($x$)=sgn($y$) could also be used. [Weisstein, Eric W. "Sign." From MathWorld--A Wolfram Web Resource.
Also "sign parity" would be confusing since "parity" is used to refer to even or oddness.
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